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I question the idea that "The group was so called because its members claimed simply to be appealing to the King for good government". OED says clearly, under appellant, "One who ‘appeals’ another of treason or felony: see APPEAL v. 1", and although this is Obs. exc. Hist.", 1388 uis precisely the 'hist.' period at which I have always understood appellant to have this meaning. OED's quotations include "1387-8 Rot. Parl. III. 236 (xi. Rich. II.) Les ditz Duc & Countes Appellantz.] 1593 SHAKES. Rich. II, IV. i. 105 Lords Appealants, your differences shal all rest vnder gage" and "1840 Blackw. Mag. XLVII. 279 A person was charged with having poisoned a man; the accuser, called the appellant, etc. 1875 GAIRDNER Ho. York & Lanc. ii, §7 {page}1 Three of the five ‘lords appellants’ of 1387". Surely the article should read
...so called because they appealed (or impeached) the king's favourites
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